Question: Was Adam also a son of Man?
The phrase "son of man" literally means in the Hebrew in many cases "the son of Adam."
Adam was not his own son, therefore Adam was not a son of Adam.
We assume that Adam had DNA as he was FORMED of the dust of the earth. Yes, it is an assumption.
Granting that assumption that Adam's body was formed to have DNA, and assuming 46 chromosomes, we now ask if the "Rib" or "Piece of Rib" of Adam had DNA?
Now wherein did Eve come from? In Genesis, we are told that she was FORMED of a sample of Adam's body, that Rib. It is reasonable to see then that Eve had been formed in part from the DNA sample of that Rib from Adam's body. It is a reasonable conjecture that Eve received in her formational 45 Chromosomes of Adam's DNA... with perhaps only the Y Chromosomes tossed aside or modified into a second X chromosome. In this scenario, Eve became as a Female Clone of Adam. In that sense then, Eve was a God Designed and Implemented, Genetically Modified "daughter of Adam." She proceeded from Adam's body with some modifications... in this scenario.
Anyone born of Eve would then be cast as a Son of Adam, a Son of Man. Linguistically speaking, in that Adam is also deemed a son of God, then anyone born of Adam would also be a son of God; not a created son of God, but a begotten son of God. Linguistically, Seth would be deemed a grandson of God, in that Adam was a son of God.
Jesus the Christ is not the only begotten son of God, in that sense. Yet, Jesus the Christ is a UNIQUELY begotten son of God, in that it (the conception) was not from the male Seedline of Adam that Jesus came into the flesh, but rather by conception of Mary's Ovum, that conception being done by the power of the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the physical manifestation of the Almighty God in the physical realm. The Holy Spirit is Almighty God in action in this physical realm -- Almighty God's power over this physical realm.
Is it so difficult to consider that the Almighty God that created the Universe, Life, and Everything, who also created, made and formed Adam and even his body's DNA, could not likewise create something physical in that particular Ovum of Mary? That Ovum was fertilized or conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit, an act of creation. One could see perhaps a new 23 chromosome set of DNA to cross with the 23 chromosomes of Mary's Ovum. Cannot HE that created everything there is also have the power to create a simple set of 23 chromosomes and do that creation right inside the very nucleus of that Ovum of Promise?
Why must we resort to the Philosophies and "Science" of the Nicene Council's 325 A.D. Science, Theology, and Philosophy to solve the incarnation of Jesus, how it was that Jesus came in the Flesh?
The very use of the term "Hypostasis" is as a Philosophical term, and this usage in the Trinitarian formation reflects the Philosophical thinking of the 4th Century A.D. Why do we shackle ourselves with that ancient and broken Philosophy?
One meaning of the term "spirit" is that of the spirit of the mind, otherwise cast as "the mind-set."
(1) Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits, whether they are of God; because many false prophets have gone out into the world.
(2) By this you know the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is of God,
(3) and every spirit that does not confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is not of God. And this is the spirit of the Antichrist, which you have heard was coming, and is now already in the world.
1Jn 4:1-3 NKJV
Notice that this (written before 99 A.D.) is saying that the Antichrist was even then already in the world. No Christian needs to be looking for the advent of The Antichrist, it has been here long before 99 A.D.
We ask, "How did Jesus come in the flesh?" Here, we do not ask if Jesus comes in the flesh, but ask instead, "How?"
This John has a particular and immediate audience, even though his words can also extend to speak to us now in 2014, his primary and original audience was pre 99 A.D.
Then again, we read:
(9) In this the love of God was manifested toward us, that God has sent His only [uniquely] begotten Son into the world, that we might live through Him.
Seth was a begotten son of Adam and linguistically Seth was also a begotten grandson of God, in that Adam himself was a son of God.
1Jn 4:9 NKJV
In my humble opinion, people have gotten too weird about the uses of the word, "god."
The FATHER is ALMIGHTY GOD. Jesus, uniquely begotten of a woman, is HIS Son. Jesus is both a Son of Adam (a Son of Man) and a son of God in the more normal sense. In this writing, we see the Father depicted as “GOD’ and HIS SON depicted as “God.” In as much as the Children of Israel were told that even they were “gods,” we can see or depict ourselves linguistically styled as “a god” or even “gods.”
"Hear, O Israel, Y-H-V-H our GOD, Y-H-V-H is Unique." You children of Israel are to have no other gods before HIM -- not even yourselves -- you children of Israel whom Y-H-V-H have called gods.
The Nicene Council's decision under the rule of the Pontifex Maximus has it all fouled up and confabulated and keeps many in an hypnotic state, so that they continue to do such sophistry as attempting to count how many angels can stand on the head of pin.
GOD is spoken of in Scripture often using "Me," "My," "Mine," "I," "Myself".. the "I." "Me," "Myself" of GOD... this is the only true Trinity there. Not the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
Jesus also has an "I," a "Me" and a "Myself" -- He has a trinity.
And you also have an "I," a "Me" and a "Myself" -- you have a trinity.
Cast aside that Nicene Council's decision... on that was set forth by the power of the Pontifex Maximus... and enforced by the power of the Sword... commanding to Kill all who would not confess to that Nicene Trinity formulation. Jesus Christ, our Lord, told none of his disciples to kill anyone.